I feel like you had additional context to this question that you meant to add, but just totally forgot.
As it stands, yes of course. If your house in condemned or otherwise subject to eminent domain, if your house is seized to pay creditors for non-mortgage debt (in some states), if somebody else has superior title to your home and you aren’t protected by being a bonafide purchaser, etc.
Won’t landlords simply pass through this increased cost to tenants?