100% of the participants are gay, but it’s between opposite sexes, so is it heterosexual?

  • darkishgrey@lemmy.world
    127·
    2 months ago

    I believe the sex would he heterosexual, but the parties would still be homosexual. This happened a lot in lavender marriages. The fact they had sex to produce children didn’t change their sexuality.

    • kkj@lemmy.dbzer0.comEnglish
      241·
      2 months ago

      Similarly, e.g. two bi men getting married is a gay wedding, even though neither party is gay. The relationship can be described independently of the people in it.

  • abbadon420@lemm.ee
    326·
    2 months ago

    I’ve wondered the same thing when I was twelve, but eventually I grew up to realise that it was a stupid question.

  • Microw@lemm.ee
    6·
    2 months ago

    I’d say sexual intercourse in itself can’t be homo- or heterosexual since that is a denomitor for people’s sexual attractions.

    The sexual intercourse would simply be male-female sex.

  • Lord Wiggle@lemmy.world
    10·
    2 months ago

    If a gay man orders 15 kilos of potatoes online through 4g network while he travels by train between Amsterdam and Paris with an average speed of 130km/h, how many liters of Fanta does he drink?

  • Denjin@lemmings.world
    31·
    2 months ago

    Hetero - from the Greek ἕτερος meaning different or other

    Homo - from the Greek ὁμός meaning same

    Irregardless of the orientation of the people involved, if its two different gendered people having intercourse it’s heterosexual intercourse. It just wouldn’t be any fun for the people involved.

  • Moxlas@discuss.online
    16·
    2 months ago

    Homo - same sex intercourse, hetero - man and woman having sex. Their orientation won’t make intercourse gay, it’s between different sexes so the act itself is heterosexual.

    • josefo@leminal.space
      21·
      2 months ago

      Nowadays hetero has been redefined to better reflect gender diversity. Homo is same gender, hetero is different genders, even if the gender are not man and woman. This includes non-binary people in the definition, as long as they are not the same gender, is not homosexual. And to be honest, it ties better to the word, etymologically.

      Also bisexual now means homo and hetero, not men and women. I’m still confused about pansexuality in this definitions. I also might have got something wrong in this explanation as I’m a cis straight dude, who listens to other people saying this things.

  • heyWhatsay@slrpnk.netEnglish
    13·
    2 months ago

    I can tell from the comments that nobody has actually been in this situation.

    And the answer, is that it’s queer, not straight.

  • CodexArcanum@lemmy.dbzer0.comEnglish
    1·
    1 month ago

    Human beings are not proscriptive. A “gay” “man” is a human being with biological characteristics typical of human males, who acts in a manner society describes as masculine, and who feels attraction towards similar sexes and genders of people.

    If that person is forced into sex with a person they don’t feel desire for, I dunno, that’s some kind of thought-experiment rape. If a “gay” “man” has sex with a “lesbian” “woman” and it’s consensual for both of them then they are both, by a descriptive measure of what acts have occurred, bisexual people, who have just engaged in heterosexual coitus.

    That’s assuming that both of them have engaged in homosexual acts before of course. By the nature of this thought experiment, they both could be people who self-describe as such without actually having done it.

    They are free to consider themselves whatever they want, because self-descriptions of people are always based more on aspirations and desires than facts. Lots of billionaires consider themselves good humanitarians, and lots of straight people have suppressed homosexual desires. People are complex, contradictory, and our language falls behind in accurately describing reality.